Ta cần chứng minh: \(\dfrac{a^2}{2}+b^2+c^2>ab+bc+ca\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{a^2}{2}+b^2+c^2-ab-bc-ca>0\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{a^2}{4}+b^2+c^2+ab+ca+2bc-3bc+\dfrac{a^2}{4}>0\) \(\Leftrightarrow\left(\dfrac{a}{2}+b+c\right)^2+\dfrac{a^2}{12}+\dfrac{a^2}{6}-3bc>0\Leftrightarrow\left(\dfrac{a}{2}+b+c\right)^2+\dfrac{a^2-36bc}{12}+\dfrac{a^2}{6}>0\) Mà \(a^3>36;abc=1\Rightarrow a^3>36abc\Rightarrow a^2>36bc\) 

\(\Rightarrow\left(\dfrac{a}{2}+b+c\right)^2+\dfrac{a^2-36bc}{12}+\dfrac{a^2}{6}>0\) luôn đúng

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$a^2+b^2+c^2-2(ab+bc+ca)=(a+b+c)^2-4(ab+bc+ca)$

$\ge (a+b+c)^2-\dfrac43(a+b+c)^2\qquad \left(ab+bc+ca\le\dfrac{(a+b+c)^2}{3}\right)$$=-\dfrac13(a+b+c)^2$

Lại có $(a+b+c)^2\ge 3\sqrt[3]{a^2b^2c^2}=3(abc)^{\frac23}<3$ nên cách này không đủ mạnh.

Ta dùng $a^2+b^2+c^2-2(ab+bc+ca)=(a-b)^2+(b-c)^2+(c-a)^2-(ab+bc+ca)$

$\ge -(ab+bc+ca)$

Theo AM-GM,

$ab+bc+ca\le 3\left(\dfrac{ab+bc+ca}{3}\right)\le 3$ và do $abc<1$ nên không thể có $ab=bc=ca=1$.

Suy ra $ab+bc+ca<3$

$\Rightarrow a^2+b^2+c^2-2(ab+bc+ca)>-3$

$\boxed{a^2+b^2+c^2-2(ab+bc+ca)>-3.}$

Do \(abc=1\Rightarrow\) đặt \(\left(a;b;c\right)=\left(\dfrac{x}{y};\dfrac{y}{z};\dfrac{z}{x}\right)\)

\(VT=\dfrac{xz}{y\left(x+z\right)}+\dfrac{xy}{z\left(x+y\right)}+\dfrac{yz}{x\left(y+z\right)}=\dfrac{\left(xz\right)^2}{xyz\left(x+z\right)}+\dfrac{\left(xy\right)^2}{xyz\left(x+y\right)}+\dfrac{\left(yz\right)^2}{xyz\left(y+z\right)}\)

\(VT\ge\dfrac{\left(xy+yz+zx\right)^2}{2xyz\left(x+y+z\right)}\ge\dfrac{3xyz\left(x+y+z\right)}{2xyz\left(x+y+z\right)}=\dfrac{3}{2}\)

Dấu "=" xảy ra khi \(x=y=z\) hay \(a=b=c=1\)