Vì $abc\ne0$ nên từ $a+b+c=\dfrac1a+\dfrac1b+\dfrac1c$

suy ra $abc(a+b+c)=ab+bc+ca$.

Xét hiệu hai vế cần chứng minh:

$b(a^2-bc)(1-ac)-a(1-bc)(b^2-ac)$

$=-(a-b)\left[abc(a+b+c)-(ab+bc+ca)\right]$

$=-(a-b)\cdot0$

$=0$

Suy ra $\boxed{b(a^2-bc)(1-ac)=a(1-bc)(b^2-ac)}$

Ta có $(a+b+c)^2=a^2+b^2+c^2$

$\Rightarrow 2(ab+bc+ca)=0$

$\Rightarrow ab+bc+ca=0$

Ta có $\dfrac1{a^3}+\dfrac1{b^3}+\dfrac1{c^3}
=\dfrac{a^3b^3+b^3c^3+c^3a^3}{a^3b^3c^3}$

Mà $a^3b^3+b^3c^3+c^3a^3-3a^2b^2c^2$

$=(ab+bc+ca)(a^2b^2+b^2c^2+c^2a^2-abc(a+b+c))$

$=0$

Do đó $a^3b^3+b^3c^3+c^3a^3=3a^2b^2c^2$

Suy ra $\dfrac1{a^3}+\dfrac1{b^3}+\dfrac1{c^3}$

$=\dfrac{3a^2b^2c^2}{a^3b^3c^3}$

$=\boxed{\dfrac3{abc}}$

Ta có \(VP=\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)^2=\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+\frac{2}{ab}+\frac{2}{bc}+\frac{2}{ac}\)\(\left(a,b,c\ne0\right)\)

\(=\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+\frac{2a+2b+2c}{abc}\)

\(=\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+\frac{2.\left(a+b+c\right)}{abc}\)\(=\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+0=\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}=VT\)

Vậy đẳng thức được chứng minh

1. Ta có : \(\left(\frac{1}{a}-\frac{1}{b}\right)^2\ge0\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}\ge\frac{2}{ab}\)

Tương tự :  \(\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge\frac{2}{bc}\); \(\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge\frac{2}{ac}\)

\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ac}\). Dấu " = " xảy ra \(\Leftrightarrow\)a = b = c

\(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}=3\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ac}\right)=9\)

\(9\le3\left(\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\right)\)\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge3\)

Dấu " = " xảy ra \(\Leftrightarrow\)a = b = c = 1

\(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}=7\)\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ac}\right)=49\)

\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2.\frac{a+b+c}{abc}=49\)

\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}=49\)

Ta có : \(\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)^2=49\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{ac}+\frac{1}{bc}\right)=49\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{c+b+a}{abc}\right)=49\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+0=49\)(vì a + b + c = 0)

\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}=49\)

Vậy ...