Super Man mà lại còn phải lên đây để hỏi bài à?

Super man hỏi bài? Nghịch lý

ok

Ta có:

1+\(\dfrac{1}{b}=b+\dfrac{1}{c}=c+\dfrac{1}{a}\)

Thay a=1

=>\(1+\dfrac{1}{b}=b+\dfrac{1}{c}=c+1\)

*Lấy \(1+\dfrac{1}{b}=c+1\Rightarrow\dfrac{1}{b}=c\Rightarrow b=\dfrac{1}{c}\)

=>\(1+\dfrac{1}{b}=\dfrac{2}{c}=c+1\)

*Lấy \(\dfrac{2}{c}=\dfrac{c+1}{1}\)

=> 2=c(c+1)

<=> 2=c²+c

=>c=-2

*Lấy \(1+\dfrac{1}{b}=\dfrac{2}{c}\)

Thay c=-2 và quy đồng

=>\(\dfrac{b+1}{b}=-1\)

=>b+1=-b

=> b+b=-1

=>2b=-1

=> b=-1/2

Vậy b=\(-\dfrac{1}{2};c=-2\)

tại sao không có trường hợp c = 1 vậy?

1. Ta có : \(\left(\frac{1}{a}-\frac{1}{b}\right)^2\ge0\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}\ge\frac{2}{ab}\)

Tương tự :  \(\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge\frac{2}{bc}\); \(\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge\frac{2}{ac}\)

\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ac}\). Dấu " = " xảy ra \(\Leftrightarrow\)a = b = c

\(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}=3\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ac}\right)=9\)

\(9\le3\left(\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\right)\)\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge3\)

Dấu " = " xảy ra \(\Leftrightarrow\)a = b = c = 1

\(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}=7\)\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ac}\right)=49\)

\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2.\frac{a+b+c}{abc}=49\)

\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}=49\)

\(a,\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}=0=>\frac{ab+bc+ac}{abc}=0=>ab+bc+ac=0.abc=0\)

Mà \(a+b+c=1=>\left(a+b+c\right)^2=1=>a^2+b^2+c^2+2ab+2bc+2ac=1\)

\(=>a^2+b^2+c^2+2\left(ab+bc+ac\right)=1=>a^2+b^2+c^2=1-0=1\) (vì ab+bc+ac=0)

\(b,S=\frac{a}{b+c}+\frac{b}{a+c}+\frac{c}{a+b}=\left(\frac{a}{b+c}+1\right)+\left(\frac{b}{a+c}+1\right)+\left(\frac{c}{a+b}+1\right)-3\)

\(=\frac{a+b+c}{b+c}+\frac{a+b+c}{a+c}+\frac{a+b+c}{a+b}-3=\left(a+b+c\right).\left(\frac{1}{a+b}+\frac{1}{b+c}+\frac{1}{a+c}\right)-3\)

\(=2014.\frac{1}{2014}-3=1-3=-2\)

Vậy.....................

a)

$A=\dfrac{a}{b^2+1}+\dfrac{b}{c^2+1}+\dfrac{c}{a^2+1}$

$\ge \dfrac{(a+b+c)^2}{a(b^2+1)+b(c^2+1)+c(a^2+1)}\qquad (\text{Cauchy Engel})$

$=\dfrac{1}{ab^2+bc^2+ca^2+1}$

$\ge \dfrac{1}{ab(a+b)+bc(b+c)+ca(c+a)+1}$

$=\dfrac{1}{(a+b+c)(ab+bc+ca)+1}

$\ge \dfrac{1}{\frac13+1}$ $=\dfrac34$

Dấu bằng khi $a=b=c=\dfrac13$.

$\boxed{A_{\min}=\dfrac34}$

b)

$B=\dfrac{a}{ab+2c}+\dfrac{b}{bc+2a}+\dfrac{c}{ca+2b}$

$\ge \dfrac{(a+b+c)^2}{a(ab+2c)+b(bc+2a)+c(ca+2b)}$

$=\dfrac4{a^2b+b^2c+c^2a+2(ab+bc+ca)}$

Lại có $a^2b+b^2c+c^2a\le (a+b+c)(ab+bc+ca)$$=2(ab+bc+ca)$

Nên $B\ge \dfrac4{4(ab+bc+ca)}$$=\dfrac1{ab+bc+ca}$

$\ge \dfrac1{\frac{(a+b+c)^2}{3}}$ $=\dfrac34$

Dấu bằng khi $a=b=c=\dfrac23$.

$B_{\min}=\dfrac34$